Tender Application Workspace for

• Returnable form
• SBD 4 (Bidder's Disclosure): must be completed and signed by the bidder's authorised signatory, who also records their name and position.
• No submission channel, submission address, closing time, copy count or packaging instruction is set out in the available material.
• SBD 6.1 (Preference Points Claim Form): claims preference points for specific goals; must be completed and submitted together with the bid, with supporting proof for every goal claimed.
• A goal claimed without the required proof is treated as not claimed.
• The form records the bidder's company name, registration number and type of entity.
• Submission method
• Email only, to [email protected]
• Quotations sent to any other address will not be considered.
• Reference number PR10118672 must be quoted on the submission and all supporting documents.
• 16 October 2026 at 10:00
• Late quotations are not accepted for consideration.
• Returnable documents — all annexures must be completed and signed
• SBD 4 (Bidder's Disclosure): discloses any interest held by directors, shareholders or officials connected to the state.
• SBD 6.1 (Preference Points Claim, PPR 2022): claims preference points for specific goals; claims are verified through the CSD.
• Annexure A (Security Measures).
• Mandatory evaluation proof: COIDA letter of good standing, SANAS accreditation certificate, AIA registration certificate, SAIOH registration certificate for the proposed resource, and SANAS-accredited calibration certificates for all monitoring equipment.
• Suppliers claiming disability must attach a valid medical certificate from a registered medical practitioner.
• Quotation validity
• 30 days from the closing date.

+ 9 more requirements in the full document analysis

• Preference point system: 80/20 (applicable to requirements up to R50 million in Rand value, all taxes included).
• Points allocation
• Price: 80 points
• Specific goals: 20 points
• Total: 100 points
• Specific goals under the 80/20 system
• Historically disadvantaged individuals: 10 points
• Women: 8 points
• Persons with disability: 2 points
• Claiming and verification
• The bidder states the points claimed for each goal on SBD 6.1.
• Proof or documentation supporting a claim must be submitted with the bid; without it the goal is treated as unclaimed.
• The organ of state may require substantiation of any claim before adjudication or at any time afterwards.
• Fraudulent claims or failure to meet the claimed conditions may result in disqualification, recovery of costs and damages, cancellation of the contract, restriction from doing business with any organ of state for up to 10 years, and criminal prosecution.
• Two-phase evaluation
• Phase 1 — Mandatory requirements
• Bidders indicate compliance or non-compliance against each mandatory item.
• Any bidder who does not meet the mandatory requirements is disqualified and is not evaluated further.
• Phase 2 — Price and specific goals (80/20 preference point system)
• Applicability of the 80/20 system

+ 3 more requirements in the full document analysis

• Conduct an occupational hygiene survey and an ergonomics assessment at the Road Accident Fund's East London office.
• Site extent: 4 000 m².
• The office environment has no welding, grinding, silica, sandblasting or manufacturing workshop activities.
• Occupational hygiene survey
• Identify health risks arising from workplace conditions, focusing on hazardous substances, noise levels and air quality.
• Hazardous Chemical Agents Regulations 2021 references are to be read as an Indoor Air Quality assessment for an office environment.
• Agents and parameters to be assessed: carbon dioxide (CO2), carbon monoxide (CO), total volatile organic compounds (TVOCs) from printers, cleaning chemicals and furnishings, inhalable office dust, temperature and relative humidity (thermal comfort), and storage and handling of c…
• Additional parameters: illumination, office noise, workstation ergonomics and thermal comfort.
• Activities on site: routine office work, kitchenette, boardrooms, stationery and cleaning material storage, and normal printer/copier use.
• RAF does not prescribe the number of samples; the Approved Inspection Authority or Occupational Hygienist determines sampling points on site according to SANS and the HCA Regulations, taking into account occupied offices, boardrooms, open-plan areas, the kitchenette and the numb…
• The bidder must propose and justify the number of samples in its methodology.
• Ergonomics assessment
• Evaluate workstation design for employee comfort and safety.
• Identify ergonomic risks such as repetitive strain injuries and recommend improvements to workstation design and work practices.
• Deliverables
• Hard and electronic copies of the Occupational Hygiene report for RAF approval.
• A separate hard and electronic report for each occupational hygiene stressor.
• Comprehensive Occupational Hygiene Survey report and comprehensive Ergonomics Assessment report.
• Reports must compare survey findings against the acceptable legal limits.
• Surveys must comply with the relevant legal requirements applicable to the facility and be conducted according to the applicable South African National Standards.

+ 38 more requirements in the full document analysis

• Pricing format
• All prices must be quoted in South African Rand (ZAR) and be VAT inclusive for VAT-registered suppliers.
• VAT vendors must include VAT in their proposed prices; if they do not, the quoted price is treated as all-inclusive and accepted as such.
• No VAT amount will be added after award.
• Price changes
• No price changes are accepted after the official award letter or purchase order is issued.
• Goods or services are delivered and accepted against an official RAF award letter or purchase order signed by an authorised official.
• RAF reserves the right not to pay for, or accept, goods or services delivered before the award letter or purchase order is issued.
• RAF will not do business with suppliers whose tax matters are not declared in order by SARS.
• No bid security, performance guarantee or retention provision is stated.

• SBD 4 (Bidder's Disclosure): discloses whether the bidder, its directors, trustees, shareholders, members or anyone holding a controlling interest is employed by the state, is connected to an employee of the procuring institution, or holds an interest in another related enterpri…
• Disqualification
• A bidder or person listed on the Register for Tender Defaulters or the List of Restricted Suppliers is automatically excluded from the process.
• A disclosure that proves untrue or incomplete disqualifies the bid, and the state may act against the bidder under PFMA SCM Instruction 03 of 2021/22.
• Independent bid determination
• The bidder must confirm the bid was prepared independently, without consultation, communication, agreement or arrangement with any competitor on price, quality, quantity, specifications, pricing methods, market allocation or the decision to bid or not to bid.
• Bid terms must not be disclosed to competitors before the official bid opening or the award of the contract.
• No contact with officials of the procuring institution during the process, other than clarification requested by the institution, and the bidder must not have helped draft the specifications or terms of reference.
• Suspicious bids may be referred to the Competition Commission, the National Prosecuting Authority, or lead to restriction from public-sector business for up to ten years.
• Preference points
• Supporting proof for each claimed goal must accompany the bid; an unproven claim scores no points.
• Claims may be verified before or after adjudication; unsubstantiated or fraudulent claims can disqualify the bidder and lead to restriction from state contracts for up to 10 years.
• Registration and standing
• CSD registration is mandatory; RAF conducts business only with CSD-registered suppliers.
• Mandatory evaluation documents — all valid proof must be submitted by the closing date and time
• COIDA: valid letter of good standing from the Compensation Commissioner or an authorised entity, with the nature of business being Occupational Hygiene Specialist, Occupational Hygiene Consulting/Consultant, Industrial Hygienist, Environmental Health and Safety Hygienist, Occupa…
• SANAS: valid accreditation certificate for Occupational Hygiene Inspection at Workplaces.
• SAIOH: valid registration certificate for the resource that will conduct the survey.
• Calibration: valid calibration certificates issued by SANAS-accredited laboratories for all monitoring equipment used, traceable to SANAS-accredited laboratories where applicable.
• RAF reserves the right to validate and confirm the validity of all submitted proof.

+ 14 more requirements in the full document analysis

• Facility and physical security
• Fire suppression system or similar, with carbon dioxide fire extinguishers, to prevent loss of records in a fire.
• Document handling
• Secure retrieval with verification of the requester's identity; retrieval activities logged with date, time, requester and reason.
• Physical records kept in lockable cabinets, accessible only to authorised personnel.
• Access and systems
• Access controlled and monitored; only authorised personnel may handle, view or transport documents.
• Access on a need-to-know basis with strong authentication and regular review of permissions.
• Data encrypted in transit and at rest using industry-standard protocols; systems patched and updated regularly.
• Data protection and incidents
• Personal and sensitive data processed in line with applicable data protection law.
• Confidentiality obligations imposed on agents, subcontractors and third parties receiving records.

• Obligations during the contract
• The provider holds RAF confidential, private, personal and sensitive information for the contract period and must maintain policies meeting RAF requirements and the Protection of Personal Information Act, 4 of 2013.
• Physical security of records in the provider's possession must be maintained at all times, and storage facilities must be protected against unauthorised access.
• Access to documents and records is limited to authorised personnel, granted on a need-to-know basis with strong authentication and regular permission reviews.
• Data breaches and security incidents must be reported to RAF promptly, and a documented incident response plan must be in place.